European Titles?
Posted: 29 Jul 2011, 04:15
Morning to everyone,
I have a question which may seem very daft but has me very confused (not particularly hard at the best of times)
Why is James DeGale allowed to fight for the European title coming off the back of a defeat where as John Murray had to vacate Kevin Mitchell, as I read somewhere that he could not face Mitchell for the title seeing that Mitchell had come off the back of the Katsidis defeat.
I have a question which may seem very daft but has me very confused (not particularly hard at the best of times)
Why is James DeGale allowed to fight for the European title coming off the back of a defeat where as John Murray had to vacate Kevin Mitchell, as I read somewhere that he could not face Mitchell for the title seeing that Mitchell had come off the back of the Katsidis defeat.