Ambling Alp wrote:This is not about my opinion.
Calling Spinks "the man" is nothing more than opinion, as technically it would be calling anyone that. With Spinks one that was not shared by many. There really is not much to back it up.
First, Patterson had a much stronger claim to winning the championship than Spinks.
When Spinks beat Holmes, Holmes was no longer the man. He was legitimately stripped of his WBC title. He was handed the IBF title which didn't even exist previously.
Beating a guy who no longer will fight the best does not make you "the man".
Even if you consider Spinks to be the man after fighting Holmes, I don't see how you can after he gave up his IBF title, pulled out of the HBO tournament which he had committed himself to.
The reason there was the HBO tournament was because there was a lot of interest in having "the man". If Spinks had won that he would have been "the man."
Yes Patterson made some easy title defenses. (You can say that about just about everyone.)
However he did defend against serious challengers as well.
Burns lost the title when he lost to Johnson. Not sure if Burley was ever the man, hard to say. (Obviously he should have got a title shot.)Charles was the certainly the best lightheavyweight for several years. Holmes lost the title the WBC fairly stripped the title when he would not fight the best. (Do you consider Ali to be the champion until 1971?) Of course Walcott was not the champ when he didn't get the decision against Louis.
None of this has much to do with Michael Spinks.
I don't see why this opens up hundreds of questions. Why on earth is it so cut and dry that Spinks was the man until 1988?
By name, the man", means there is very little dispute.
Hang on this is really hard to follow (which is the whole point).
Holmes wasn't the champ because he gave up the WBC title and took the the made up IBF title (though the WBC title had been made up at some point in the past). So having the IBF title meant he wasn't champ.
Then Spinks is no longer the champion because he gave up the IBF title? So this time giving up the IBF title has the opposite effect!
So is the IBF title meaningful or meaningless?
How does any of thsi relate to Tyson then who also won the IBF title? Did it make him the champ? Or was it the WBC title? Or was it the WBA title? How do I know? Or, more importantly, how can anyone know?
They can't.
Now, if your argument is that Tyson appeared to be the best fighter and he'd fought the best opposition then I'm totally in agreement. BUT that can be said of many, many fighters throughout history.
Tommy Burns was defending against relatively timid opposition. Johnson appeared to be better fighter and was beating better opposition. He should have been made the champion much earlier.
Charles was best fighter at 175 and fought the best opposition so by this logic at some point he became champ when Lesnevich didn't grant him a shot. When exactly did this happen?
You don't have to answer these questions. They are just examples to show how this arbitrary system doesn't work.